Meet housing needs

Hi to anyone who would like to read, and especially to anyone who can offer constructive advice.
My marriage of 4.2 years with 0 cohabitation is over and we are beginning the Divorce process.
As I understand from case law we have a 50/50 split of our matrimonial monies and accrued assets and assets owned before the marriage will remain under ownership of the spouse who brought them to the marriage.
For my questions it is about property and housing needs.
My girlfreind/fiance and ultimately my wife rented a 2 bed house of a local housing assocciation, on getting married she moved into the house i owned outright from before our meeting.
in divorce I understand the law states that there is a duty for both spouses to have there housing needs met if possible.
My wife as circa 60k she has 15 yrs before retire and works part time but could easily increase this to full time.
My savings are similar 60K I retire in 2 years and have a 27K pension pot (not great)
there is about 400K in the property.
My solicitor (who i had one session with) says that she would be entitled to have the ability for home ownership as this is what she as become accustomed to (although she had no stake in my property she become accustomed to just living without the need to pay a bill).
I would just like a rough steer on what sort of settlement would be appropriate for these circumstances.

A few bullet points
. We have no Children
. She gave up full time work because she could manage part time
. She also has ISAs tucked away in her fathers name as she used to claim rebates
. She spent money on just curtains and a few sticks of furniture.
. The house will of increased in value over the years.
Any reckoning would be gladly recieved.
Afore i go...Would it not be that she has plenty of money to rent a property and her needs would be met this way?

Speak to another solicitor for a free half hour session.

After a 4 year long childless marriage the original suggestions seem way off.